We have had a cemetery plot passed onto us by our mother prior to her passing away.

She passed away not too long ago.

Since then we have received a letter from the local government advising that they made an error in transfer this plot to her 10 years prior and that they shouldn’t have then passed it onto us.

They wrote to us saying that they were going to change it so 1/2 would be with 1 party and the other 1/2 would be with us. We were upset and asked "How could they do this to us?" Now they are changing it again, so we have nothing in our name at all and need permission from other relatives to use it.

They admit to making mistakes and now if we take it further we have to pay a barrister AUD00 to advise on what to do prior to a court hearing!

What would you do?

We have a purchased headstone for the person that recently passed away and now we feel like we are being ripped off! :(


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    We have had a cemetery plot passed onto us by our mother prior to her passing away.

    She passed away not too long ago.

    Since then we have received a letter from the local government advising that they made an error in transfer this plot to her 10 years prior and that they shouldn’t have then passed it onto us.

    They wrote to us saying that they were going to change it so 1/2 would be with 1 party and the other 1/2 would be with us. We were upset and asked "How could they do this to us?" Now they are changing it again, so we have nothing in our name at all and need permission from other relatives to use it.

    They admit to making mistakes and now if we take it further we have to pay a barrister AUD00 to advise on what to do prior to a court hearing!

    What would you do?

    We have a purchased headstone for the person that recently passed away and now we feel like we are being ripped off! :(


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      We are looking at buying a property however I have noticed that the boundary is significantly different to what is on the maps on file in the lands department. According to the lands department there should have approximately 35 metres of river along the back boundary however when we walked around the property we noticed that the person who owns the property behind has moved their fenceline to this side of the river which makes it look like they own BOTH sides of the riverbank.

      When we went back into town I asked around & some of the people in town said that the fences have been like that for "nigh on 10 years now" & because no one has made any attempt to contact the owner of the fence then he/she now officially owns that part of the property so if we bought it we would have no access to the river.

      I don’t want to call the solicitor because every time I call them they seem to add another 0.00 to the already extortionate bill so does anyone actually KNOW if there is any way we could have this other person’s boundary fences moved off what should be ours (if we buy the property) or is he/she allowed to leave the fences there because they have been there for 10 years?
      We are in Australia.
      Here you also do not own the river but you can own within a certain distance of it & in some states you can fence up TO the river & across it if you own both sides.
      The public record shows that the place we a re looking at ends AT the river however the guy on the other side of the river has fenced ACROSS the river & at least 30 metres onto this side of the river.
      I contacted the agent & they assure me that the land we are looking at goes right up to the river & that if we buy it we can just pull down the fences but I am concerned that they are just saying whetever they think will get them the sale!
      We won’t just go ahead & buy without the solicitor but I was hoping to get a general idea before we showed too much interest…I don’t want to get all excited & then find out that because of some rediculous squatters rights bullsh*t law we would not be getting the river access!!!!!


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        I am about to take my daughters deadbeat dad to court over Child Support Payments as I suspect he is purposefully hiding his income to reduce his liability to the rediculous amount of .00 per month. For the last 10 years his income has been on average -k, resulting in Child Support Payments of 0 per month. I know that he is not earning only k per year as he claims as he could not afford his home, cars, business/factory etc, and suspect his wife, who works with him in their business is taking home most of the money in her name. Will a court rule a back payment if he is found guilty? My solicitor is seeking a full disclosure of the business, and both he and his wifes incomes/tax returns. Also, if his books do not show evidence of foul play, would his many assets and lifestyle be considered, as these certainly do not represent a wage of ,000?

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